The statement $\sim(p \leftrightarrow \sim q)$ is
- Aequivalent to $\mathrm{p} \leftrightarrow \mathrm{q}$
- Ba fallacy
- Ca tautology
- Dequivalent to $\sim \mathrm{p} \leftrightarrow \mathrm{q}$
✓ Correct answer: A
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